I'm curious if anyone has ever heard of possession of UK credit cards and/or bank accounts being used to argue that the holder should be considered UK tax resident, despite not qualifying for any other reason (i.e., spending less than 16 days, having very few ties, and so on, as per the SRT).
The SRT seems pretty black and white but this seems to happen all the time in countries like Germany and France?
The SRT seems pretty black and white but this seems to happen all the time in countries like Germany and France?