Hello,
I've been using UK companies as a non-resident director and sole shareholder for 10+ years.
There has never been any corporate income tax liability because the UK company is rendered non-resident under applicable tax treaty. But recently, I started to doubt in regards to personal income tax liability, filing obligations.
1. According to HMRC guidance, the days a non-resident director spends in the UK should be proportionally taxed under PAYE. Even if I spend just 1 day in the UK, a small percentage of my annual remuneration (of all my UK companies) should be taxed in the UK. No protest, it sounds perfectly fair, because the income is then made in the UK. I paid proportional tax in the UK for this exact reason.
2. What if the non-resident director spends 0 days in the UK? Again, according to HMRC guidance, the non-resident director of a UK company should always file a personal income tax return in the UK. Personally, I've never done that in such years, and it does not sound reasonable at all. I'm even on the opinion that HMRC guidance is wrong.
There's a lot of conflicting information on the topic. Google's 1st and 2nd result are outright wrong, although the information is written by reputable law firms. Other law firms seem to be on the opinion that no personal income tax return should be filed in the UK unless the non-resident director either has tax liability in the UK, or if he spent at least 1 day of that tax year in the UK.
HMRC is pretty much useless on this topic because they won't argue or explain. They keep sending me back to documents I don't agree with.
Question: The fact that a non-resident director received remuneration from a UK company does not create personal income tax liability in the UK. The non-resident director has no obligation to file a tax return in the UK unless he spent at least 1 day of that tax year in the UK. True or false, and why?
I've been using UK companies as a non-resident director and sole shareholder for 10+ years.
There has never been any corporate income tax liability because the UK company is rendered non-resident under applicable tax treaty. But recently, I started to doubt in regards to personal income tax liability, filing obligations.
1. According to HMRC guidance, the days a non-resident director spends in the UK should be proportionally taxed under PAYE. Even if I spend just 1 day in the UK, a small percentage of my annual remuneration (of all my UK companies) should be taxed in the UK. No protest, it sounds perfectly fair, because the income is then made in the UK. I paid proportional tax in the UK for this exact reason.
2. What if the non-resident director spends 0 days in the UK? Again, according to HMRC guidance, the non-resident director of a UK company should always file a personal income tax return in the UK. Personally, I've never done that in such years, and it does not sound reasonable at all. I'm even on the opinion that HMRC guidance is wrong.
There's a lot of conflicting information on the topic. Google's 1st and 2nd result are outright wrong, although the information is written by reputable law firms. Other law firms seem to be on the opinion that no personal income tax return should be filed in the UK unless the non-resident director either has tax liability in the UK, or if he spent at least 1 day of that tax year in the UK.
HMRC is pretty much useless on this topic because they won't argue or explain. They keep sending me back to documents I don't agree with.
Question: The fact that a non-resident director received remuneration from a UK company does not create personal income tax liability in the UK. The non-resident director has no obligation to file a tax return in the UK unless he spent at least 1 day of that tax year in the UK. True or false, and why?
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