Hello, did anybody talk to Spanish lawyers about this or is living as a non-resident in Spain?
An individual is resident in Spanish territory when any one of the following circumstances apply (machine translation of the personal income tax law - 35/2006, Article 9)
The good thing is, that there's no permanent home rule, so it's possible to own a home in Spain without becoming tax resident (if you spend less than 183 days in Spain and don't have the center of life interests there).
An individual is resident in Spanish territory when any one of the following circumstances apply (machine translation of the personal income tax law - 35/2006, Article 9)
Anybody knows what period is long enough not to be considered sporadic absence? And if somebody has, let's say UAE residency, the "sporadic absences" are not counted, right?"a) That they remain more than 183 days, during the calendar year, in Spanish territory. To determine this period of stay in Spanish territory, sporadic absences will be counted, unless the taxpayer proves his tax residence in another country. In the case of countries or territories considered as tax havens, the Tax Administration may require proof of permanence in it for 183 days in the calendar year."
Does this mean, that if you have a kid with a Spanish resident (while not being married) you are presumed to be a tax resident? Or you have to be married?"b) That the main nucleus or the base of its activities or economic interests resides in Spain, directly or indirectly.
It will be presumed, unless proven otherwise, that the taxpayer has his habitual residence in Spanish territory when, in accordance with the previous criteria, the spouse not legally separated and the minor children who depend on him or her habitually reside in Spain."
The good thing is, that there's no permanent home rule, so it's possible to own a home in Spain without becoming tax resident (if you spend less than 183 days in Spain and don't have the center of life interests there).