I have (or i think I have) a sort of weird situation.
I am an Indian Citizen. I am opening a UAE Freezone company (single owner, single director, 100% ownership) and going to use it for my online business - so everything will be routed through the UAE Freezone company.
But, in sept 2021, I'll be moving to France, first as a student for my masters education and then after 1 year of masters, I'll most likely be working there. So considering the fact that I'll be spending close to 8-10 months in France, I would be considered French resident in terms of taxation.
My UAE company's profits won't be taxed in India because:
1. I'm non-resident as far as indian tax authorities are concerned.
2. Business operations do not take place in India
3. None of my business associates (buyers/sellers) are based in India.
So I'll be able to move funds from my UAE company to my personal bank accounts in India without attracting Corporate or individual taxes.
BUT, I will be a resident of France.
So how does that work? Would French authorities levy tax on my UAE Freezone Company's profits?
Maybe they can't tax the company, but once the company pays out the profits to me in the form of dividends/drawings, will French authority levy taxes on that?
(I read that France follows a territorial tax system so it shouldn't tax me in France, but I might be wrong)
It's difficult for me to wrap my head around this. Any help would be appreciated.
EDIT: https://tridenttrust.com/media/3395/tdub-shams-kf.pdf
As far as I know, SHAMS (one of the UAE Freezone where I'm going to incorporate a company) does not disclose ownership/manager/director details publicly. I don't know if it matters in this case or not.
I am an Indian Citizen. I am opening a UAE Freezone company (single owner, single director, 100% ownership) and going to use it for my online business - so everything will be routed through the UAE Freezone company.
But, in sept 2021, I'll be moving to France, first as a student for my masters education and then after 1 year of masters, I'll most likely be working there. So considering the fact that I'll be spending close to 8-10 months in France, I would be considered French resident in terms of taxation.
My UAE company's profits won't be taxed in India because:
1. I'm non-resident as far as indian tax authorities are concerned.
2. Business operations do not take place in India
3. None of my business associates (buyers/sellers) are based in India.
So I'll be able to move funds from my UAE company to my personal bank accounts in India without attracting Corporate or individual taxes.
BUT, I will be a resident of France.
So how does that work? Would French authorities levy tax on my UAE Freezone Company's profits?
Maybe they can't tax the company, but once the company pays out the profits to me in the form of dividends/drawings, will French authority levy taxes on that?
(I read that France follows a territorial tax system so it shouldn't tax me in France, but I might be wrong)
It's difficult for me to wrap my head around this. Any help would be appreciated.
EDIT: https://tridenttrust.com/media/3395/tdub-shams-kf.pdf
As far as I know, SHAMS (one of the UAE Freezone where I'm going to incorporate a company) does not disclose ownership/manager/director details publicly. I don't know if it matters in this case or not.