All being equal, when one receives a payment on his personal bank account, in 1st case from a person, in the 2nd one from a company - would the bank view the two payments differently, in any respect?
In terms of scrutiny, for instance.
And is the bank more likely to ask for a document of the source of a transaction in the 2nd case?
Are there other ways in which they're viewed differently by the bank as well?
In terms of scrutiny, for instance.
And is the bank more likely to ask for a document of the source of a transaction in the 2nd case?
Are there other ways in which they're viewed differently by the bank as well?