I'm not American but I've been reading into this issue over the last few weeks, and I can't seem to find any explanation, not even in the legislation.
The Controlled Foreign Companies rule basically says if American citizens control 10% (use to be around 50%) of the firm, they will be treated as an American firm for tax purposes.
That is they will be made to pay taxes in USA if they have American owners even though you are Headquarter in some tax haven.
How did/do these companies like starbucks and google, and apple where all their top executives are US citizens and their largest shareholders are all American and American firms located/ live in USA, how come they don't have the IRS chasing them just EU tax authorities. What am I missing in this picture? Are/were they using some loophole in the double taxation treaties?
The Controlled Foreign Companies rule basically says if American citizens control 10% (use to be around 50%) of the firm, they will be treated as an American firm for tax purposes.
That is they will be made to pay taxes in USA if they have American owners even though you are Headquarter in some tax haven.
How did/do these companies like starbucks and google, and apple where all their top executives are US citizens and their largest shareholders are all American and American firms located/ live in USA, how come they don't have the IRS chasing them just EU tax authorities. What am I missing in this picture? Are/were they using some loophole in the double taxation treaties?